Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-100 PDF, Sale Best Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-100 Certification With Accurate Answers

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QUESTION 69
Which of the following is true of Ethernet half-duplex transmission?
A. Half-duplex transmission is less efficient because the frame MTU is smaller.
B. Half-duplex transmission is only 30-40% efficient because of collisions.
C. Ethernet switches support half-duplex transmission only.
D. All of the above.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 70
What is the meaning of carrier sense in the CSMA/CD algorithm?
A. The host will retransmit the frame if it detects a collision during transmission.
B. The host is able to detect the transmission speed of the Ethernet switch port to which the host is connected.
C. The host will only transmit data when it detects that no other devices are transmitting.
D. The host will only transmit upon a timer expiry.
E. The host will only transmit when it receives the token.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 71
What is the effective maximum rate of data transmission on a 10 Mbps full-duplex Ethernet link?
A. 5 Mbps.
B. 10 Mbps.
C. 15 Mbps.
D. 20 Mbps.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 72
Which of the following Ethernet rates requires an optical cable to operate?
A. 10 Mb/s Ethernet.
B. 100 Mb/s Ethernet.
C. 1000 Mb/s Ethernet.
D. There are copper and optical versions possible for all of these Ethernet data rates.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 73
What distance is supported using CAT-5 cabling for 10/100/1000 TX?
A. 100 m.
B. 500 m.
C. 1 Km
D. 10 Km

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 74
Which of the following statements is TRUE of Layer 3 addressing?
A. Internet devices on the same network can have the same Layer 3 address in different broadcast domains.
B. Every Host device must have a unique Layer 3 address in order to access the Internet.
C. Internet devices need unique Layer 3 addresses to communicate directly with upper layers.
D. A router must have only one address to allow it to be uniquely identified.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 75
Which of the following is a characteristic of the IP layer?
A. Provides an unreliable, connectionless data transmission service.
B. Provides a mechanism for flow control.
C. Verifies the integrity of all received datagrams.
D. Provides services equivalent to the OSI data link layer.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
The physical networks connecting two PCs to the internet are DSL and PPP respectively. Which layer will enable the two PCs to communicate?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
Hosts in the same IP network share which common address feature?
A. Same host numbers.
B. Same IP address.
C. First two bits of the IP address are set to 01.
D. Same network prefix.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
A Class C network is defined by a:
A. 32-bit network prefix.
B. 24-bit network prefix.
C. 16-bit network.
D. 8-bit network.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 79
Public IP address spaces are distributed by which of the following organizations?
A. Network Solutions INC.
B. IANA.
C. IETF.
D. ITU-T.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
What characteristic of IP addressing creates a hierarchical network?
A. All hosts on all networks must have unique host numbers.
B. IP addresses identify a host and the network on which it resides.
C. Clients are assigned 32-bit addresses and servers 64-bit addresses.
D. Router, switch and host addresses are drawn from unique address classes.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 81
Which of the following is a private IP network address reserved by the IANA?
A. 172.30.0.0/16
B. 192.100.0.0/24
C. 172.0.0.0/16
D. 169.254.0.0/16
E. 11.0.0.0/8

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
Which type of IP address contains the network number and all 1’s for the host address?
A. Unicast address.
B. Broadcast address.
C. Multicast address.
D. Anycast address.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 83
Complete the following sentence: The introduction of the subnet address added another
A. Layer of hierarchy in the addressing structure.
B. Class to the classful addressing system.
C. 16-bit number to accompany the IP address.
D. 4,294,967,296 addresses to the IP address space.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 84
What bit pattern identifies the network address in the subnet mask?
A. A string of 1s
B. A string of 0s
C. A string of alternating 10s
D. There is no specific bit pattern to identify the network address.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 85
What is the purpose of the broadcast address?
A. Provides an address that refers to all the devices in a given network.
B. Provides an address to refer to a specific group of devices in a given network.
C. Provides an address to refer to a group of devices having the same IP addresses in different Layer 2 networks.
D. Provides an address to refer to a single device on a given network.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
Which three of the following are important considerations when designing subnets? (Choose three.)
A. Number of subnetworks currently required.
B. Type of physical connectivity used by each segment.
C. Future network growth requirements.
D. Number of hosts each subnetwork will support.
E. Class of the network address to be used for the network.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 87
Network address: 200.12.30.0
Network mask: 255.255.255.0
Use the information above. You need to create 12 subnetworks supporting 10 host addresses each.
Which extended prefix will meet this requirement?

A. /12
B. /24
C. /26
D. /28

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
Given the associated prefix value, which of the following is a valid host address?
A. 172.16.224.255/18
B. 255.255.255.255/32
C. 224.1.2.1/8
D. 192.168.24.59/30

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
A network administrator is creating a subnet plan for the address 172.16.0.0/16. The network must support 459 hosts on each subnet while providing the maximum number of subnets. What subnet mask should be used?
A. 255.255.0.0
B. 255.255.128.0
C. 255.255.224.0
D. 255.255.254.0

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 90
With a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, which of the IP addresses below are valid host addresses? (Choose all that apply)
A. 17.23.119.63
B. 87.99.12.159
C. 95.11.22.93
D. 192.11.25.87

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 91
Given a network address of 116.14.0.0, which of the following is a valid host address when using the subnet mask 255.255.255.240?
A. 116.14.17.16
B. 116.14.17.16
C. 116.14.17.192
D. 116.14.17.189

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 92
Given the following (Network address: 208.40.224.0, Network prefix: /28.) What is the address range, including the network and broadcast addresses, for the fourth sub-network?
A. 208.40.224.0 208.40.224.255
B. 208.40.4.0 208.40.4.255
C. 208.40.224.16 208.40.224.31
D. 208.40.224.48 208.40.224.63
E. 208.40.227.0 – 208.40.224.255

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 93
Which of the following is a characteristic of a subnet created with a /31 prefix?
A. There is no broadcast address on the network.
B. The address can only be used as a loopback address.
C. This specifies a single host address.
D. A /31 prefix is not supported on the SR and ESS platform.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 94
Which of the following is a characteristic of the system address?
A. A physical interface address.
B. A logical address on the router not corresponding to any specific interface.
C. May have any prefix value.
D. A management IP address.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 95
Address summarization reduces the routing table size by:
A. Allowing a contiguous block of network addresses to be represented by one network prefix
B. Increasing the number of addresses in the routing table.
C. Summarizing addresses in the network into smaller routing tables.
D. Not advertising directly connected routes.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 96
What is the preference value in the routing table used for?
A. It indicates the preferred egress interface.
B. It differentiates between multiple routes to a destination learned by the same protocol.
C. It differentiates between multiple routes to a destination learned by different routing protocols.
D. It is used to differentiate local routes from remote routes.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 97
At what stage in the packet forwarding process is the IP packet header examined?
A. When the router first receives a frame from a LAN.
B. After the forwarding table is checked.
C. After the IP datagram is extracted from the L2 frame.
D. Immediately before the IP packet is encapsulated for transmission.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 98
What happens next after an incoming packet is de-encapsulated from the Layer 2 frame in an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 router?
A. The IP datagram is encapsulated in the appropriate Layer 2 frame by the MDA.
B. The IP datagram passes through the switch fabric to reach the egress IOM.
C. The IP datagram is passed to the IOM.
D. A lookup is performed in the FIB to determine the egress interface.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 99
Which of the following IP header fields contains information that indicates whether routers are allowed to fragment a packet?
A. Header checksum.
B. Fragmentation offset.
C. Flags.
D. Identification

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 100
What is the main purpose of IP fragmentation?
A. To limit the number of the IP addresses in the network.
B. To improve the efficiency of transmissions over the network.
C. To reduce the number of resources required to send a large frame over the network.
D. To allow IP datagrams to be carried over Layer 2 networks with varying MTU sizes.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 101
Which of the following is a characteristic of Port Address Translation?
A. Resolves a Mac address given a specific IP address.
B. Allows a single public IP address to represent multiple private IP addresses simultaneously.
C. Maps a private address to a well known port number.
D. Provides a one to one mapping from a private to a public address.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 102
Which of the following describes an IP filter on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. An IP filter is used to examine an IP packet and its contents.
B. An IP filter is applied to allow or deny IP packets into a network.
C. Multiple ingress and egress filter policies can be applied to a network interface.
D. Once an IP filter is applied it cannot be modified.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 103
Which of the following command lines would be found in a list of commands designed to permit only certain type of traffic from exiting router RTR-A to router RTR-B?
A. RTR-A>config>router>if>ingress# filter ip 1
B. RTR-B>config>router>if>ingress# filter ip 1
C. RTR-B>config>router>if>ingress# filter ip 1
D. RTR-A>config>router>if>egress# filter ip 1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 104
What is the sequence of messages sent by a host when it attempts to ping a destination for which it has no Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache entry?
A. ICMP echo request, ARP request, ARP reply, ICMP echo reply.
B. ARP request, ARP reply, ICMP echo request, ICMP echo reply.
C. ICMP echo request, ICMP echo reply, ARP request, ARP reply.
D. ICMP echo request, ARP reply, ARP request, ICMP echo reply.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 105
Which of the following best describes the function of an ARP cache within the same subnet?
A. Used by IP to map an unknown IP address to the known hardware address of the distant host.
B. Adds only an IP address entry for an unknown device on the same subnet.
C. Transmits ICMP messages to multiple hosts with unknown IP addresses.
D. Resolves the MAC address of a host device given its IP address.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 106
What is the sequence of events for a client to receive an IP address from the server in the DHCP?
A. Discover, offer, request, acknowledgement.
B. Request, offer, discover, acknowledgement.
C. Discover, request, offer, acknowledgement.
D. Request, acknowledgement, discover, offer.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 107
Which of the following statements is TRUE about ICMP?
A. An IP datagram is encapsulated within an ICMP header.
B. ICMP messages can only be generated by routers.
C. ICMP messages are encapsulated within an IP datagram.
D. ICMP guarantees delivery of a message.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 108
What protocol is used by ping to verify IP network reachability ?
A. DCHP
B. ICMP
C. ARP
D. NAT

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 109
When a device in an IP network receives an echo request message that is destined for itself, it then:
A. Estimates the round trip-time.
B. Generates an echo reply.
C. Calculates the data loss statistics.
D. Verifies the data field of the message.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 110
What ICMP message type will a router use to indicate to a host that an IP datagram sourced from that host cannot be delivered?
A. Echo Request.
B. Destination Unreachable.
C. Router redirect.
D. Echo Reply.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 111
A set of tasks that move a packet from its entry into an IP network to its exit from the IP network. This describes:
A. IP routing.
B. IP protocol.
C. IP encapsulation.
D. IP tunneling.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 112
Which field in the IP routing table contains the name or address of the neighbour that advertised the prefix to the router?
A. Preference.
B. Metric.
C. Dest prefix.
D. Next hop.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 113
What is the function of the Routing Table Manager?
A. Based on the metrics of the routing protocol, find the best path to the destination network and install it in the routing table.
B. Provide a CLI interface to allow the operator to configure the dynamic routing protocol on the router.
C. Based on the routing protocol preference values, chose the route with the lowest preference and install it in the routing table.
D. Provide a CLI interface to allow the network operator to install static routes in the routing table.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 114
Which of the following is characteristic of a static route?
A. Responds in real time to network failures.
B. Can only be used for routing within an autonomous system.
C. Uses a hop-count metric to determine the best route to a network.
D. Explicitly defines the next hop based on operator input.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
Which of the following describes a static default route?
A. An entry included in the default configuration of the router that is used if no dynamic routing protocols or static routes are configured.
B. A wildcard entry used when the destination network is not specifically defined in the routing table.
C. An entry selected based on the route that has the least cost to the destination (path with the most physical bandwidth)
D. An entry used by the routing protocol when it is unable to calculate the best route to the destination.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 116
Based on the network diagram, what is the command to use on R1 to setup a static route to the network on CR1

A. config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.2
B. config router static-route 10.2.3.1 next-hop 192.168.2.0
C. config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.1
D. config router static-route 10.2.3.2 next-hop 192.168.2.0

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 117
Based on the network diagram, (click on exhibit) what is the command to use on CR1 to setup a default
static route to R1?

A. config router static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.2.3.2
B. config router static-route 0.0.0.0 next-hop 10.2.3.2
C. config router static-route 10.2.3.2 next-hop 0.0.0.0/0
D. config router default-route 10.2.3.2
E. config router static-route 0.0.0.0 next-hop 192.168.2.0

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 118
Based on the network diagram (click on exhibit), R2 wants to connect to the networks behind CR1 using a static-route. What is the correct syntax given the choices below? R1 has a valid static-route defined for networks behind CR1.

A. config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.2
B. config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.1.1.1
C. config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.1
D. config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.1.1.2
E. none of the above

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 119
Based on the network diagram (click on exhibit), Router 1 installs the network D in its routing table, based on a dynamic routing update from Router 2. Which of the following describes the information that will be installed in the routing table?

A. 172.16.9.0/24 next-hop 10.10.10.1
B. 172.16.9.0/24 next-hop 10.10.10.2
C. 172.16.9.0.24 next-hop 10.10.10.3
D. Any of the above

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 120
What are the tasks of the Routing Table Manager (RTM)? Choose two
A. RTM selects the best route from among multiple routing protocols.
B. RTM selects the best route using the metric as criteria .
C. RTM sends its best route to all its directly connected neighbors.
D. RTM installs its best route in the routing table.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 121
Choose two true statements that characterize Distance Vector Routing?
A. Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically.
B. Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.
C. Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.
D. Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 122
What metric does a link state protocol use to choose the best path to a destination network?
A. Link bandwidth.
B. Round trip time.
C. Hop count.
D. Route preference.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 123
You need to implement an interior gateway routing protocol for your network that supports scalability, fast convergence and VLSM. Which routing protocol would best serve your needs?
A. RIPv1.
B. RIPv2.
C. OSPF.
D. BGP.
E. Static routes.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 124
Which of the parameters in Hello messages exchanged between two OSPF neighbors must be the same to keep the adjacency alive in OSPF? (Choose four.)
A. Interface MTU.
B. Area ID.
C. Authentication password.
D. Hello interval.
E. Dead interval.
F. Router priority.

Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 125
Which of the following are TRUE statements about the router ID in OSPF? Choose two
A. A router ID is not required by OSPF.
B. The system address is used as the router ID if router-id is not set.
C. The router ID is used to uniquely identify every OSPF router.
D. On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, the router ID is set to the highest logical IP address if router-id is not explicitly set.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 126
Which of the following are FALSE statements about the OSPF routing protocol? Choose two.
A. OSPF is a link state protocol with fast convergence.
B. OSPF supports hierarchy with multiple areas.
C. The default metric for OSPF is hop count.
D. OSPF does not support VLSM.
E. OSPF supports neighbor authentication.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 127
Which of the following describes the normal sequence of events in the forming of an OSPF adjacency?
A. Hello exchange, DB descriptor exchange, Link state requests and updates.
B. DB descriptor exchange, Link state requests and updates, Hello exchange.
C. Link state requests and updates, Hello exchange, DB descriptor exchange.
D. Hello exchange, Link state requests and updates, DB descriptor exchange.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 128
In the diagram, R7 receives a new LSA from R3 and installs it in its link state database. 10 ms. later it receives another copy of the LSA with the same sequence number from R8. What does R7 do with the LSA received from R8?

A. R7 silently discards the LSA received from R8.
B. R7 installs the LSA received from R8 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors .
C. R7 discards the LSA received from R8 and sends an ACK to R8.
D. R7 installs the LSA received from R8 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R8 and floods a copy to its neighbors.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 129
In the diagram, R3 receives an LSA with the sequence number 111 from R7 and then receives another copy of the LSA with a sequence number 112 from R1. What does R3 do with the LSA from R1?

A. R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends a copy of the LSA from its link state base to R1.
B. R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.
C. R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends an ACK to R1.
D. R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R1 and floods a copy to its neighbors.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 130
In the diagram, R3 receives an LSA with sequence number 112 from R7 and installs it in its link state database. 10 ms. Later it receives a copy of the same LSA with a sequence number of 111 from R1. What does R3 do with the LSA from R1?

A. R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends a copy of the LSA from its link state base to R1.
B. R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.
C. R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends an ACK to R1.
D. R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R1 and floods a copy to its neighbors.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 131
Which of the following best describes an autonomous system?
A. An autonomous system is a network or group of networks operating under one administrative authority.
B. An autonomous system is another term for the collection of routers that make up the Internet
C. An autonomous system is a network or group of networks from many organizations running different IGP routing protocols, but all running BGP.
D. An autonomous system is a loosely defined term that can refer to any organization that has a connection to the Internet.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 132
Which transport protocol and port number is used by BGP to establish and maintain a peering session with other BGP speakers?
A. TCP port 179.
B. UDP port 179.
C. TCP port 22.
D. UDP port 22.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 133
What are some of the characteristics of BGP? Choose three
A. BGP is an exterior gateway protocol.
B. BGP routing is based on distance vector.
C. BGP sends periodic updates to its neighbors.
D. A router running BGP protocol needs an Autonomous system number
Correct Answer: ABD

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